UPSC Combined Geo-Scientist, Prelims · 2020 · Paper I, General Studies
UPSC Geo-Scientist Prelims 2020 General Studies (Paper I): answer key and solutions
All 120 questions of the 2020 Combined Geo-Scientist Prelims Paper I (general studies), each with the answer and a short explanation in the hint-sheet style: the key fact first, numericals worked with units. Tap a number in the key to jump to the question; every question also has its own page.
Take this paper offlineAll 120 questions with answers and explanations in one PDF.
Gause`s competitive exclusion principle states that two species:
(a) can coexist if they occupy the same niche.
(b) cannot coexist if they occupy the same niche.
(c) cannot coexist if they occupy the adjacent niches.
(d) can coexist if they occupy similar niches.
Answer: (b) cannot coexist if they occupy the same niche.
Gause's principle (competitive exclusion): two species competing for the same limiting resources (same niche) cannot coexist indefinitely; one excludes the other. Coexistence needs niche differentiation (resource partitioning). Gause showed it with Paramecium aurelia and P. caudatum in culture.
Chemosynthetic bacteria found near sub-marine volcanic vents feed on:
(a) Hydrogen sulphide (H₂S).
(b) Organic matter.
(c) Deep sea tube worms.
(d) Inorganic carbon.
Answer: (a) Hydrogen sulphide (H₂S).
Vent bacteria are chemosynthetic: they oxidise H₂S to get energy and use it to fix CO₂. H₂S is the energy source they 'feed' on. Tube worms (Riftia) host these bacteria; they are not their food. Remember: chemosynthesis = energy from inorganic oxidation, not light.
Chemoautotrophs are those organisms which obtain energy:
(a) from the oxidation of organic electron donors in the presence of light.
(b) solely from the oxidation of inorganic electron donors in the presence of light.
(c) from the oxidation of organic electron donors in the absence of light.
(d) solely from the oxidation of inorganic electron donors in the absence of light.
Answer: (d) solely from the oxidation of inorganic electron donors in the absence of light.
Chemo = energy from chemical oxidation, not light. Auto = carbon from CO₂, so the electron donors are inorganic (H₂S, NH₃, Fe²⁺, H₂). They work in the absence of light. Options with 'light' are photo-trophs; 'organic donors' are chemo-organotrophs.
Plants fix only about 1–3% of incident sunlight (often quoted as ~1–2% of PAR) as gross primary production. The rest is reflected, transmitted or lost as heat and in transpiration. Remember: 10% law applies to transfer between trophic levels, not to light capture.
A wetland is land that is waterlogged or shallow-flooded long enough for hydric soils and water-tolerant plants (marshes, swamps, bogs, mangroves). The defining feature is saturation of the ground, not the source or speed of the water.
The edge effect at the contact of continental fresh water and sea water results in:
(a) non-deposition of sediments due to turbulence.
(b) deposition of sand due to fall in system energy.
(c) deposition of organic matter due to density difference.
(d) flocculation of clays resulting in formation of mud deposits.
Answer: (d) flocculation of clays resulting in formation of mud deposits.
At the river-sea contact (estuary), dissolved salts neutralise the charge on suspended clay particles. The clays flocculate, settle and build mud flats. Remember: salinity, not just loss of velocity, drives estuarine mud deposition.
Heliophile plants require mean maximum illumination of:
(a) 30,000 lux.
(b) 20,000 lux.
(c) 10,000 lux.
(d) 40,000 lux.
Answer: (b) 20,000 lux.
Heliophytes (sun-loving plants) need high light; the mean maximum illumination quoted for them in ecology texts is about 20,000 lux, while sciophytes (shade plants) need far less. Answer as per the official key.
Which one of the following about anemophilous plants is correct?
(a) Bright coloured flowers
(b) Sweet smelling flowers
(c) No nectar
(d) Dwarf stigmata
Answer: (c) No nectar
Anemophily = wind pollination. Flowers are small, dull, no nectar, no scent; pollen is light and abundant; stigmas are large and feathery to catch pollen. So bright colour, scent and dwarf stigma are features of insect flowers or wrong.
(b) chemical exchange between sea water and its substratum as well as hydrothermal emissions.
(c) evaporation of water and concentration of dissolved salts.
(d) mixing of different density waters during natural warm and cold current movements.
Answer: (b) chemical exchange between sea water and its substratum as well as hydrothermal emissions.
Sea salt comes from rock weathering brought by rivers, exchange with the sea floor and hydrothermal emissions (Cl⁻ and other volatiles from vents and volcanoes). Evaporation only concentrates salt; it does not supply it. Rain is nearly salt-free.
Biodiversity in terms of species richness is maximum in:
(a) natural grasslands.
(b) semi-natural grasslands.
(c) artificial grasslands.
(d) well maintained and watered grasslands.
Answer: (a) natural grasslands.
Natural grasslands carry the highest species richness because they are old, undisturbed and have many niches. Semi-natural, artificial and managed (watered, fertilised) grasslands are dominated by a few species. Remember: management for yield lowers richness.
Which one of the following greenhouse gases is the largest single contributor to anthropogenic radiative forcing?
(a) Methane
(b) Ozone
(c) Nitrous oxide
(d) Carbon dioxide
Answer: (d) Carbon dioxide
CO₂ gives the largest share of anthropogenic radiative forcing (about two-thirds of the forcing from long-lived greenhouse gases), from fossil fuel burning and land-use change. CH₄ is stronger per molecule but far less abundant.
Which one of the following is the main natural source of Methane?
(a) Wetlands
(b) Belching by cattle
(c) Leakage from pipelines
(d) Burning of wood
Answer: (a) Wetlands
Wetlands are the largest natural source of methane (anaerobic decay by methanogens). Cattle belching and pipeline leaks are anthropogenic sources; burning wood mainly gives CO₂.
Ozone depletion is greatest at high latitudes, especially the Antarctic ozone hole in spring. Polar stratospheric clouds form in the cold polar vortex and convert stable chlorine into active Cl that destroys O₃ when sunlight returns.
Which of the following particulate matters (size based) are notified pollutants in National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)?
(a) PM 10 and PM 3.5
(b) PM 9 and PM 2.5
(c) PM 10 and PM 2.5
(d) PM 5 and PM 3.5
Answer: (c) PM 10 and PM 2.5
NAAQS (2009) notify PM₁₀ (particles ≤ 10 µm) and PM₂.₅ (≤ 2.5 µm) along with SO₂, NO₂, O₃, CO, NH₃, Pb, benzene, benzo(a)pyrene, As and Ni — 12 pollutants in all.
The broad estimates of sea level rise due to global warming by 2100 is approximately:
(a) 10 cm
(b) 20 cm
(c) 30 cm
(d) 40 cm
Answer: (d) 40 cm
IPCC projections put global mean sea level rise by 2100 at roughly 0.3–1 m depending on emissions; the broad mid estimate used in texts of that time is about 40 cm (IPCC AR5: 26–82 cm). Main causes: thermal expansion and melting ice.
Thermal pollution which involves release of excessive amounts of heated water in aquatic systems is harmful. It is because hot water:
(a) kills aquatic plants.
(b) causes oxygen starvation.
(c) kills aquatic microbes.
(d) causes CO₂ depletion.
Answer: (b) causes oxygen starvation.
Solubility of O₂ falls as water temperature rises, while metabolic rate of aquatic animals rises. Result: oxygen starvation (low DO), fish kills. Heat may harm plants and microbes too, but the basic harm is loss of dissolved oxygen.
The biological oxygen demand (BOD) of unpolluted river water is:
(a) 10 - 20 mg O₂/dm³/5 day.
(b) 5-10 mg O₂/dm³/5 day.
(c) less than 5 mg O₂/dm³/5 day.
(d) more than 20 mg O₂/dm³/5 day.
Answer: (c) less than 5 mg O₂/dm³/5 day.
BOD = O₂ used by microbes to oxidise organic matter in 5 days at 20 °C. Clean, unpolluted river water has BOD < 5 mg/L (often 1–2). Untreated sewage: 100–400 mg/L. Remember: higher BOD = more pollution.
(b) providing physical support to plants in marshy lands.
(c) oxygen inhalation by plants.
(d) carbon dioxide release during photosynthesis.
Answer: (c) oxygen inhalation by plants.
Pneumatophores are negatively geotropic breathing roots of mangroves (Avicennia, Rhizophora). Waterlogged mud lacks oxygen, so these roots rise above the surface and take in air through lenticels. Prop/stilt roots give support, not pneumatophores.
A bog is ombrotrophic: it gets water only from precipitation (rain, snow). So it is acidic, nutrient-poor and dominated by Sphagnum moss and peat. A fen gets ground or surface water and is less acidic.
Farmers surround the fields with hedgerows during high insolation period to:
(a) prevent the reduction in photosynthetic activity.
(b) reduce evapotranspiration.
(c) create conditions for plants to close their stomata.
(d) prevent wilting of plants.
Answer: (a) prevent the reduction in photosynthetic activity.
Hedgerows act as windbreaks and give partial shade. In high insolation, excess light and heat cause stomatal closure and photo-inhibition; hedgerows prevent the fall in photosynthetic activity and also cut moisture loss. Key holds (a).
(b) they act like a greenhouse on the surface of the planet.
(c) the colour of some of the gases emanating from industrial plants are green.
(d) these gases are produced by agricultural crops.
Answer: (b) they act like a greenhouse on the surface of the planet.
The name comes from the greenhouse analogy: like glass, these gases let short-wave sunlight in but trap outgoing long-wave (infrared) radiation, warming the surface and lower atmosphere. Colour has nothing to do with it.
Pursuant to the ratification of Convention on Biological Diversity, India legislated Biodiversity Act in the year:
(a) 1992
(b) 1994
(c) 2002
(d) 2014
Answer: (c) 2002
India signed the CBD in 1992 (ratified 1994) and enacted the Biological Diversity Act in 2002; Biological Diversity Rules 2004. It set up the National Biodiversity Authority (Chennai), State Biodiversity Boards and BMCs.
India has committed to reduce emission intensity of its GDP from 2005 levels by 33-35 per cent by the year:
(a) 2022
(b) 2030
(c) 2032
(d) 2035
Answer: (b) 2030
India's INDC/NDC under the Paris Agreement (2015): cut emission intensity of GDP by 33–35% below 2005 levels by 2030, 40% non-fossil power capacity and a 2.5–3 billion t CO₂ carbon sink. (2022 update raised it to 45%.)
Which one of the following is NOT vested in the Union by the Constitution (Fortieth Amendment) Act?
(a) All mines and minerals lying in the ocean within its territorial waters
(b) All resources of the exclusive economic zone
(c) Fisheries
(d) All things of value in the ocean within its continental shelf
Answer: (c) Fisheries
The 40th Amendment (1976) rewrote Article 297: vests in the Union all lands, minerals and things of value under the ocean within territorial waters and continental shelf, and all other resources of the EEZ. 'Fisheries' as such is not named.
Which one of the following is NOT a renewable source of energy?
(a) Wind
(b) Sunlight
(c) Nuclear minerals
(d) Biofuels
Answer: (c) Nuclear minerals
Nuclear minerals (uranium, thorium) are finite, mined resources → non-renewable. Wind, sunlight and biofuels are replenished naturally. Remember: nuclear power is low-carbon but not renewable.
India’s climate is most affected by which of the following two winds?
(a) North-East monsoon and South-West monsoon
(b) North-West monsoon and South-East monsoon
(c) North-East monsoon and South-East monsoon
(d) North-West monsoon and South-West monsoon
Answer: (a) North-East monsoon and South-West monsoon
India's climate is controlled by the South-West monsoon (June–Sept, ~75% of rain) and the North-East monsoon (retreating/winter, rain on Tamil Nadu coast). This seasonal reversal of winds defines the 'monsoon type' climate.
Centrally sponsored scheme Ayushman Bharat is a national health insurance system for:
(a) women.
(b) every citizen.
(c) old age people.
(d) poor and vulnerable.
Answer: (d) poor and vulnerable.
Ayushman Bharat–PMJAY (2018) gives ₹5 lakh per family per year cover for secondary and tertiary care to poor and vulnerable families identified by SECC 2011 (about 10.74 crore families then). It is not universal.
Which one of the following statements about Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana is NOT correct?
(a) It is a livelihood mission aiming at alleviation of rural poverty
(b) It seeks to mobilize about 9 crore households into community institutions like self-help groups
(c) It is wage employment scheme for the landless agricultural labour
(d) It proposes to build skills of the poor and to enable them to access formal sources of finance
Answer: (c) It is wage employment scheme for the landless agricultural labour
DAY–NRLM is a self-employment and livelihood mission: mobilise poor households into SHGs, give skills and access to credit. It is not a wage employment scheme; wage employment for unskilled labour is MGNREGA.
East India Company, to begin with, exported Indian goods to Western countries. Which one of the following is NOT one of the goods in the trade?
(a) Muslin
(b) Calico
(c) Silk
(d) Wool
Answer: (d) Wool
The Company exported Indian cotton textiles (muslin, calico), silk, indigo, saltpetre, spices. Wool was not an Indian export to Europe; Britain itself was a wool producer.
Which one of the following is the common term to describe the main source of water for human withdrawals?
(a) Green water
(b) Hard water
(c) Blue water
(d) Storm water
Answer: (c) Blue water
Blue water = fresh surface and groundwater (rivers, lakes, aquifers) — the source of human withdrawals for irrigation, industry and homes. Green water = soil moisture used by plants; grey water = used/polluted water.
Which one of the following statements regarding the Solicitor General of India is NOT correct?
(a) It is a constitutional position under Article 76 of the Constitution of India
(b) He is appointed by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet
(c) He assists the Attorney General of India
(d) It is a statutory position
Answer: (a) It is a constitutional position under Article 76 of the Constitution of India
The Attorney General is constitutional (Art. 76). The Solicitor General is a statutory post (Law Officers (Conditions of Service) Rules, 1987), appointed by the ACC, and assists the AG. So statement (a) is wrong.
Who among the following is the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board?
(a) Cabinet Secretary
(b) Chairman, UPSC
(c) Secretary, Department of Personnel and Training
(d) Prime Minister of India
Answer: (a) Cabinet Secretary
The Civil Services Board (for transfers and postings of senior officers) at the Centre is headed by the Cabinet Secretary; in states, the Chief Secretary heads the state CSB (as directed in T.S.R. Subramanian v. UoI, 2013).
The National Statistical Commission was established on the basis of the recommendations of which one of the following commissions/committees?
(a) Rangarajan Commission
(b) Lodha Commission
(c) Santhanam Committee
(d) M.G.K. Menon Committee
Answer: (a) Rangarajan Commission
The NSC (2006) was set up on the recommendation of the Rangarajan Commission (National Statistical Commission report, 2001) to reform official statistics. First chairman: Suresh Tendulkar.
According to the Global Climate Risk Index 2020, published by environmental think tank Germanwatch, in the year 2018 India’s rank in the list of top most climate affected nations is:
(a) 1st
(b) 3rd
(c) 5th
(d) 7th
Answer: (c) 5th
Germanwatch's Global Climate Risk Index 2020 (data for 2018) ranked India 5th most affected, after Japan, Philippines, Germany and Madagascar — due to the Kerala floods and cyclones Titli and Gaja.
Mission Indradhanush (2014) aims at full immunisation of children (< 2 years) and pregnant women against vaccine-preventable diseases. Intensified Mission Indradhanush followed later.
Which one of the following statements about the Finance Commissions, periodically established by the Government of India, is NOT true?
(a) It recommends distribution of taxes between the Union and the states
(b) It recommends the principles governing the grants-in-aid of revenues of states
(c) It recommends measures to augment the consolidated fund of a state
(d) It recommends measures regarding the salary of government employees
Answer: (d) It recommends measures regarding the salary of government employees
Under Art. 280, the FC recommends sharing of taxes (vertical and horizontal), principles of grants-in-aid (Art. 275), and measures to augment state consolidated funds for local bodies. Salaries of government employees are fixed by Pay Commissions, not the FC.
The Swavalamban Scheme of the Government of India is directed to provide a social safety net to:
(a) senior citizens.
(b) unorganized workers.
(c) women.
(d) new born girl child.
Answer: (b) unorganized workers.
Swavalamban (2010) gave a co-contribution of ₹1,000 a year to unorganised sector workers joining the NPS-Lite pension. It was later replaced by Atal Pension Yojana (2015).
The Justice J S Verma Committee was constituted in 2012 to propose legal reforms regarding the safety of which of the following sections of Indian society?
(a) Dalits and Backward castes
(b) Women
(c) Religious minorities
(d) Children
Answer: (b) Women
After the Delhi gang rape (Dec 2012), the Justice J.S. Verma Committee proposed reforms of criminal law on crimes against women. It led to the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013.
Who among the following determines as to whether a particular matter (not enumerated in any of the 3 lists) falls under the residuary power of the Parliament?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Supreme Court
(d) President of India
Answer: (c) Supreme Court
Residuary powers lie with Parliament (Art. 248, entry 97 of the Union List). Whether a matter falls under it is a question of interpretation of the Constitution, decided finally by the courts, i.e. the Supreme Court.
Which of the following Five Year Plans emphasized the need for establishing a “Socialist Pattern of Society” in India?
(a) 2nd Five Year Plan
(b) 3rd Five Year Plan
(c) 4th Five Year Plan
(d) 5th Five Year Plan
Answer: (a) 2nd Five Year Plan
The 2nd Five Year Plan (1956–61, Mahalanobis model) stressed heavy industry and adopted the goal of a 'socialistic pattern of society' set by the Avadi session of Congress (1955) and Parliament (1954).
Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India deals with Uniform Civil Code?
(a) Article 44
(b) Article 40
(c) Article 39A
(d) Article 41
Answer: (a) Article 44
Article 44 (DPSP): the State shall endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code for citizens throughout India. Art. 40 = village panchayats; 39A = free legal aid; 41 = right to work, education, public assistance.
Who among the following envisioned the framework of sustainable development called PURA (Providing Urban Amenities to Rural Areas)?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(d) K.R. Narayanan
Answer: (b) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
PURA (Providing Urban Amenities in Rural Areas) was proposed by Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam: physical, electronic and knowledge connectivity to make villages economically viable.
Which one of the following about the Gandhian approach to development is NOT true?
(a) Voluntary limitation of wants
(b) Development of self-sufficient village community
(c) Achieve balance between man and nature
(d) Industrialization and participation of private players
Answer: (d) Industrialization and participation of private players
Gandhian development: limited wants, self-sufficient villages, cottage industries, decentralisation, harmony with nature. Gandhi opposed large-scale industrialisation and profit-driven private capital. So (d) is not Gandhian.
The ministry of Rural Development consists of which of the following departments?
(a) Department of Rural Development and Department of Land Resources
(b) Department of Community Development, Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation and Department of Social Assistance
(c) Department of Rural Development, Department of Community Resources and Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation
(d) Department of Land Resources, Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation and Department of Social Assistance
Answer: (a) Department of Rural Development and Department of Land Resources
The Ministry of Rural Development has two departments: Department of Rural Development and Department of Land Resources. Drinking Water and Sanitation became a separate ministry (2011; now Jal Shakti).
Which one of the following states in India produces largest marketable surplus of wheat?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Haryana
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Punjab
Answer: (d) Punjab
Punjab produces far more wheat than it consumes, so it gives the largest marketable surplus and the largest share of central pool procurement. UP produces the most wheat but consumes much of it.
Which one among the following states does NOT share boundary with Chhattisgarh?
(a) Bihar
(b) Telangana
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: (a) Bihar
Chhattisgarh borders UP, Jharkhand, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh (7 states). It does not touch Bihar; Jharkhand lies between them.
Which of the following two states have the highest per capita income in India?
(a) Punjab and Kerala
(b) Kerala and Goa
(c) Goa and Haryana
(d) Haryana and Punjab
Answer: (c) Goa and Haryana
Among the options, Goa has the highest per capita NSDP, and Haryana is among the top major states (ahead of Kerala and Punjab in that period). Sikkim and Delhi are also high but are not offered.
Insolation percentage received on Pole as compared to Equator is approximately:
(a) 42 percent.
(b) 68 percent.
(c) 33 percent.
(d) 47 percent.
Answer: (a) 42 percent.
Insolation falls with latitude because the sun's rays are more oblique and pass through more air. Annual insolation at the poles is roughly 40% of the equator's (texts quote ~42%). Remember: equator gets the maximum annual total.
Which one of the following states has a different female marriage migration practice in India?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Nagaland
(c) Goa
(d) Meghalaya
Answer: (d) Meghalaya
In most of India, women migrate on marriage to the husband's home (patrilocal). In Meghalaya (Khasi and Garo, matrilineal), the husband often moves to the wife's home, so female marriage migration is different.
Which one among the following Union Territories is largest in terms of area?
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Lakshadweep
(c) Daman and Diu
(d) Puducherry
Answer: (d) Puducherry
Areas (2019, before J&K reorganisation): Puducherry ~490 km², Chandigarh ~114 km², Daman and Diu ~112 km², Lakshadweep ~32 km². So Puducherry is largest among the options.
(a) annual averages in temperature and precipitation only.
(b) annual averages in temperature only.
(c) seasonal variations in temperature and precipitation only.
(d) annual averages and seasonal variations in temperature and precipitation.
Answer: (d) annual averages and seasonal variations in temperature and precipitation.
Climate classifications (e.g. Köppen) use annual averages and seasonal patterns of both temperature and precipitation, linked to vegetation. Neither alone is enough.
Which one among the following countries has the highest consumption of food in terms of kcal per day per person?
(a) USA
(b) Australia
(c) Netherland
(d) Saudi Arabia
Answer: (a) USA
FAO data show the USA among the highest per capita food supply, about 3,600–3,700 kcal per person per day, above Australia, the Netherlands and Saudi Arabia.
Which one of the following ecosystems has the highest net primary productivity?
(a) Rainforest
(b) Extreme desert
(c) Lakes and streams
(d) Mid-latitude grassland
Answer: (a) Rainforest
Tropical rainforests have the highest NPP per unit area among the options (~2,000 g/m²/yr). Extreme deserts are lowest. (Swamps, estuaries and reefs also rank high, but are not offered.)
Which one of the following Indian states does NOT have mangrove forest?
(a) Odisha
(b) Telangana
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) West Bengal
Answer: (b) Telangana
Telangana is landlocked, so it has no mangroves. Odisha (Bhitarkanika), AP (Godavari-Krishna delta) and West Bengal (Sundarbans) all have mangrove forests.
Which one of the following pairs of founder and newspaper is NOT correctly matched?
(a) Bande Mataram – Bankim Chandra
(b) Kesari – Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Bombay Samachar – Fardonjee Marzban
(d) Al Hilal – Abul Kalam Azad
Answer: (a) Bande Mataram – Bankim Chandra
Bankim Chandra wrote the song 'Bande Mataram' (Anandamath), but the newspaper Bande Mataram (1905) was started by Bipin Chandra Pal and edited by Aurobindo Ghosh. Others are correct: Kesari–Tilak, Bombay Samachar–Fardunjee Marzban, Al-Hilal–Azad.
Which one of the following was NOT a feature of Criminal Tribes Act, 1871?
(a) Communities of craftsmen, traders and pastoralists were classified as criminal tribes
(b) The tribes were declared criminal on the basis of their profession
(c) The notified criminal tribes were expected to live only in the notified village settlements
(d) The criminal tribes were not allowed to move out without a permit
Answer: (b) The tribes were declared criminal on the basis of their profession
The Criminal Tribes Act, 1871 labelled whole communities as 'criminal by birth' (hereditary criminality), not by profession. Notified groups had to live in notified settlements and needed a pass to move. So (b) is not a feature.
In 1797, under a clause of which one of the following settlements, Raja of Burdwan’s estate was auctioned when he failed to pay the revenue to the East India Company?
(a) Taluqdari
(b) Ryotwari
(c) Permanent
(d) Mahalwari
Answer: (c) Permanent
Under the Permanent Settlement (1793, Bengal), the sunset law let the Company auction estates of zamindars who failed to pay revenue on time. The Raja of Burdwan's lands were auctioned in 1797.
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct about Khilafat movement?
(a) It was led by Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali
(b) It demanded that Turkish Sultan must retain control over the Muslim sacred places in the erstwhile Ottoman Empire
(c) Khalifa must be left with sufficient territory to enable him to defend the Islamic faith
(d) The Congress did not support the movement
Answer: (d) The Congress did not support the movement
Khilafat movement (1919–24), led by the Ali brothers, demanded the Sultan keep control of holy places and enough territory. Gandhi and the Congress supported it, merging it with Non-Cooperation. So (d) is wrong.
Which one among the following groups was known as ‘no-changers’ opposing Congress Party’s entry into Legislative Council following the withdrawal of Non-Cooperation Movement?
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Dr. M.A. Ansari
(b) C.R. Das, Motilal Nehru and S.C. Mitra
(c) Anil Baran Roy, Subhash Bose and S. Satyamurti
(d) Srinivas Iyengar and B.S. Munje
Answer: (a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Dr. M.A. Ansari
After Non-Cooperation ended (1922), no-changers — Vallabhbhai Patel, Rajendra Prasad, M.A. Ansari, C. Rajagopalachari — opposed council entry. Pro-changers (C.R. Das, Motilal Nehru) formed the Swaraj Party.
Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
(a) Mohammedan Literary Society – Abdul Latif
(b) National Mohammedan Association – Sayyid Ameer Ali
(c) Mohammedan Educational Conference – Sayyid Ahmad Khan
(d) Anglo-Mohammedan Defence Association – Nawab Muhsin-ul-Mulk
Answer: (d) Anglo-Mohammedan Defence Association – Nawab Muhsin-ul-Mulk
Anglo-Muhammadan Defence Association (1893) was founded by Sayyid Ahmad Khan with Theodore Beck, not Muhsin-ul-Mulk. Others correct: Mohammedan Literary Society–Abdul Latif (1863), CNMA–Ameer Ali, Educational Conference–Sayyid Ahmad Khan.
Which one of the following gave reserved seats for the Depressed Classes in the provincial and central legislative councils that were to be voted in by the general electorate?
(a) First round table conference
(b) Second round table conference
(c) Poona pact
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
Answer: (c) Poona pact
The Poona Pact (1932) replaced separate electorates (Communal Award) with reserved seats for Depressed Classes in a joint (general) electorate — 148 seats in provincial legislatures and 18% in the central legislature.
Jahangir got impressed by the Turkish fluency of which one of the following European travellers and made him a Mansabdar of 400 sawar?
(a) William Hawkins
(b) Ralph Fitch
(c) William Finch
(d) Thomas Coryat
Answer: (a) William Hawkins
William Hawkins reached Jahangir's court (1609) for the English Company. Jahangir liked his Turkish, made him a mansabdar of 400 and gave him a wife, but trading rights were not granted.
Which of the following statements is / are correct?
Shantidas was a leading Jain jeweler and banker in Ahmedabad
Shajahan granted land to build poshalas to Shantidas
In 1656 Murad Bakhsh granted village Palitana to Shantidas for the use of Jain pilgrims. The grant was later confirmed by Aurangzeb in 1660
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
1 ✔ Shantidas Jhaveri, Jain jeweller-banker of Ahmedabad. 2 ✔ Shah Jahan granted land for poshalas (Jain rest-houses). 3 ✔ Murad Bakhsh granted Palitana (1656); Aurangzeb confirmed it (1660). All correct → (d).
Which one of the following Sufi saints of Qadiriyya order was condemned by Aurangzeb for his discussion on Wahdat-al-wujud with his father Shahjahan and elder brother Dara Shikoh?
(a) Shaikh Abdul Qadir
(b) Shaikh Hamid
(c) Miyan Mir
(d) Mulla Shah
Answer: (d) Mulla Shah
Mulla Shah Badakhshi (Qadiri, disciple of Miyan Mir) was the teacher of Dara Shikoh; his talk on wahdat-al-wujud with Shah Jahan and Dara led Aurangzeb to condemn him.
The musical treatise Sangitasiromani was dedicated to which one of the following rulers?
(a) Sultan Sikandar Lodi
(b) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi of Jaunpur
(c) Bahadur Shah of Gujarat
(d) Raja Man Singh Tomar of Gwalior
Answer: (b) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi of Jaunpur
Sangita Shiromani (1428), a Sanskrit music compendium, was compiled under Sultan Ibrahim Shah Sharqi of Jaunpur. (Man Singh Tomar is linked to Mankutuhal.)
At a given temperature and pressure, the force of attraction among the molecules will be highest in case of:
(a) helium
(b) sugar
(c) water
(d) carbon tetrachloride
Answer: (b) sugar
Sugar is a solid; in solids molecules are held by the strongest intermolecular forces (here many H-bonds). Water is liquid; CCl₄ liquid (weak dispersion); helium gas (weakest). Order: sugar > water > CCl₄ > He.
Which one of the following has the similar physical state with water at room temperature?
(a) Iodine
(b) Bromine
(c) Chlorine
(d) Fluorine
Answer: (b) Bromine
At room temperature bromine is a liquid (like water). F₂ and Cl₂ are gases; I₂ is a solid. Remember: Br₂ and Hg are the only elements liquid at room temperature.
Which one of the following statements is correct about camphor and ammonium chloride?
(a) Both of them are inorganic compounds
(b) Both of them are organic compounds
(c) Both of them undergo sublimation
(d) Camphor is an element but ammonium chloride is a compound
Answer: (c) Both of them undergo sublimation
Camphor (organic) and NH₄Cl (inorganic) both sublime on heating — pass from solid to vapour directly. NH₄Cl actually dissociates to NH₃ + HCl and recombines on cooling.
The dye in black ink can be separated by the method of:
(a) evaporation
(b) fractional distillation
(c) dialysis
(d) chromatography
Answer: (d) chromatography
Dyes in ink are separated by chromatography: components move at different speeds on paper/column due to different adsorption and solubility. Evaporation leaves all dyes together.
Name the scientist who was NOT associated with the work of periodic classification of elements?
(a) Dmitri Mendeleev
(b) Robert Bunsen
(c) Johann Wolfgang Dobereiner
(d) John Newlands
Answer: (b) Robert Bunsen
Periodic classification: Döbereiner (triads), Newlands (octaves), Mendeleev (periodic law), also Lothar Meyer and Moseley. Bunsen is known for the burner and spectroscopy (with Kirchhoff), not periodic classification.
When 10 g of calcium carbonate is decomposed completely, then 5.6 g of calcium oxide is formed along with the generation of carbon dioxide. Mass of the carbon dioxide formed is:
(a) 4.4 g
(b) 5.6 g
(c) 4.6 g
(d) 4.8 g
Answer: (a) 4.4 g
CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂. By conservation of mass: CO₂ = 10 − 5.6 = 4.4 g → (a). Check: 100 g CaCO₃ gives 56 g CaO + 44 g CO₂.
Which one of the following correctly represents RER?
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum having no ribosomes attached to its surface
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum having ribosomes attached to its surface
(c) Endoplasmic reticulum with rounded vesicles
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum with Golgi appears on its surface
Answer: (b) Endoplasmic reticulum having ribosomes attached to its surface
RER = rough endoplasmic reticulum: studded with ribosomes, makes proteins for secretion and membranes. SER has no ribosomes and makes lipids, detoxifies.
Which one of the following provides buoyancy to aquatic plants to help them float?
(a) Aerenchyma
(b) Tracheid
(c) Guard cell
(d) Sclerenchyma
Answer: (a) Aerenchyma
Aerenchyma = parenchyma with large air spaces; it gives buoyancy and aeration to aquatic plants (Hydrilla, water hyacinth). Tracheids conduct water; sclerenchyma gives strength.
Which one of the following is NOT a unit of magnetic field strength?
(a) Tesla
(b) Gauss
(c) Ampere - metre
(d) Ampere/metre
Answer: (c) Ampere - metre
Units of B: tesla (SI), gauss (CGS; 1 T = 10⁴ G). H (magnetising field) is in A/m. Ampere-metre (A·m) is the unit of pole strength, not field strength.
A straight conducting wire carries a DC current through it. Which one of the following statements is true regarding the magnetic field around the wire?
(a) The magnetic field does not depend upon the amount of current flowing through the wire
(b) The magnetic field does not depend upon the distance from the wire
(c) The magnetic field depends upon the material of the wire
(d) The magnetic field decreases with an increase from the wire
Answer: (d) The magnetic field decreases with an increase from the wire
Field of a long straight wire: B = μ₀I/(2πr). It depends on current I and distance r, not on the wire material. B ∝ 1/r: it decreases with distance from the wire.
A current carrying circular loop having n number of turns per unit length has a current I through it. If the current through it and the number of turns per unit length are doubled, then the magnetic field at the centre of the loop will:
(a) remain same.
(b) increase by four times.
(c) increase by two times.
(d) decrease by two times.
Answer: (b) increase by four times.
B at the centre ∝ n × I. Doubling both: B′ = (2n)(2I) ∝ 4 × B → four times.
A metallic wire having length l and area of cross-section A has a resistance R. It is now connected in series with a wire of same metal but with length 2l and area of cross-section 2A. The total resistance of the combination will be:
(a) 2R
(b) 4R
(c) R
(d) R/2
Answer: (a) 2R
R = ρl/A. Second wire: ρ(2l)/(2A) = R. In series: R + R = 2R → (a).
Which one of the following statements is NOT true about the sound waves?
(a) Sound waves are longitudinal in nature
(b) Sound waves can propagate through water
(c) Speed of sound waves in steel is more than its speed in air
(d) Sound waves can propagate through vacuum
Answer: (d) Sound waves can propagate through vacuum
Sound is a mechanical, longitudinal wave; it needs a medium and cannot travel through vacuum. It travels faster in solids (steel ~5,000 m/s) than in air (~343 m/s).
Saraswati Samman (1991) is given by the K.K. Birla Foundation for an outstanding literary work in any Indian language. The foundation also gives the Vyas Samman and Bihari Puraskar.
Football team of which one of the following countries was defeated by Indian football team to won the South Asian Football Federation (SAFF) under-18 Football Championships 2019?
(a) Nepal
(b) Pakistan
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Bangladesh
Answer: (d) Bangladesh
India beat Bangladesh 2–1 in the final of the SAFF U-18 Championship 2019 (Kathmandu).