UPSC Geo-Scientist Prelims 2025 Chemistry (Paper II): answer key and solutions

Which one of the following statements regarding hydrogen atom and other one electron species is correct ?

1. (a) For H-atom, s orbital is dependent on the radial wave function (r) only and independent of the angular wave function (θ and ϕ).
2. (b) For H-atom, s orbital is dependent on both the radial wave function (r) and the angular wave function (θ and ϕ).
3. (c) For H-atom, there is no such dependence observed for s orbital; rather, the dependence starts with involvement of p orbital.
4. (d) For H-atom, s orbital is dependent on the angular wave function (θ and ϕ) only and independent of the radial wave function (r).

The correct order of penetrating ability of atomic orbitals is :

1. (a) 4s > 4p > 4d > 4f
2. (b) 4f > 4d > 4p > 4s
3. (c) 4p > 4s > 4d > 4f
4. (d) 4d > 4p > 4s > 4f

The correct electronic configuration of Platinum is :

1. (a) [Xe] 4f¹⁴ 5d¹⁰ 6s⁰
2. (b) [Xe] 4f¹⁴ 5d⁹ 6s¹
3. (c) [Xe] 4f¹⁴ 5d⁸ 6s²
4. (d) [Xe] 4f¹³ 5d¹⁰ 6s¹

The element with the highest enthalpy of atomization in the first transition series is :

1. (a) V
2. (b) Fe
3. (c) Mn
4. (d) Cu

An element forms an ion in the +IV oxidation state with electronic configuration : [Xe] 4f¹⁴ 5d¹⁰. Which group and period of the Modern Periodic Table does the element belong to ?

1. (a) p-block element from Period – 6 and Group – 14
2. (b) d-block element from Period – 6 and Group – 10
3. (c) p-block element from Period – 5 and Group – 13
4. (d) d-block element from Period – 5 and Group – 12

The metallic elements of this group of the periodic table show the highest oxidation state of (+VI) at the bottom of the group and a stable oxidation state of (+III) at the top of the group. The group to which the elements belong in the Modern Periodic Table is :

1. (a) Group 16
2. (b) Group 15
3. (c) Group 6
4. (d) Group 13

The S²⁻ ions prefer to bind to the :

1. (a) Alkali metal ions
2. (b) Alkaline earth ions
3. (c) Lighter transition metal ions in high oxidation states
4. (d) Heavier transition metal ions in low oxidation states

Which of the following statements are correct ?

1. The ionic radii of a metal ion in a given oxidation state are always a constant.
2. If a metal can form cations of different oxidation states, then for a given coordination number its ionic radius increases with increasing oxidation state.
3. If a metal can form cations of different oxidation states, then for a given coordination number its ionic radius decreases with increasing oxidation state.
4. The ionic radii of a metal ion in a given oxidation state increase with an increase in coordination number.

Select the answer using the code given below :

1. (a) 1 and 2
2. (b) 2 and 4
3. (c) 3 and 4
4. (d) 1 and 3

The effective nuclear charge on the 4s electron of Vanadium atom is :

1. (a) 4.30
2. (b) 3.30
3. (c) 1.95
4. (d) 5.20

The element with the highest value of electronegativity in the 5d series is :

1. (a) W
2. (b) Hg
3. (c) Au
4. (d) Os

Which one of the following represents the correct order of electron gain enthalpy of halogen atoms ?

1. (a) F > Cl > Br > I
2. (b) I > Br > Cl > F
3. (c) I > Cl > Br > F
4. (d) Cl > F > Br > I

Which one among the following elements shows the maximum ferromagnetism ?

1. (a) Sn
2. (b) Xe
3. (c) Sr
4. (d) Gd

The redox chemistry of silver is given by the following equations :

1. Ag⁺(aq) + e⁻ → Ag(s) E° = + 0.80
2. Ag²⁺(aq) + e⁻ → Ag⁺(aq) E° = + 1.98

Which of the following statements are not correct with respect to above equations ?
Statement (I) : Reaction 1 is thermodynamically more feasible than reaction 2.
Statement (II) : Ag⁺ is a good oxidizing agent.
Statement (III) : Reaction 2 is thermodynamically more feasible than reaction 1.
Statement (IV) : Ag⁺ is a good reducing agent.
Select the answer using the code given below :

1. (a) Statement (III) and (IV)
2. (b) Statement (I) and (II)
3. (c) Statement (II) and (III)
4. (d) Statement (I) and (IV)

The oxidation state of Cerium in Ceric sulphate is :

1. (a) Ce²⁺
2. (b) Ce³⁺
3. (c) Ce⁴⁺
4. (d) Ce⁵⁺

Hydrolysis of NO₂ forms :

1. (a) HNO₂
2. (b) HNO₃
3. (c) HNO₂ and HNO₃
4. (d) HNO₃ and NO

Which one of the following statements regarding B(OH)₃ is correct ?

1. (a) It is a hydroxide and a strong Brønsted base.
2. (b) It is a tribasic acid.
3. (c) It is a weak Lewis acid.
4. (d) It is a strong Brønsted acid.

The correct order of reducing nature of the oxy acids is :

1. (a) H₃PO₄ > H₃PO₃ > H₃PO₂
2. (b) H₃PO₂ > H₃PO₃ > H₃PO₄
3. (c) H₃PO₃ > H₃PO₄ > H₃PO₂
4. (d) H₃PO₂ > H₃PO₄ > H₃PO₃

A salt with the stoichiometry AB₂ where r(A⁴⁺) = 63 pm and r(B²⁻) = 140 pm adopts :

1. (a) Rutile structure
2. (b) Rock salt structure
3. (c) Fluorite structure
4. (d) Zinc Blende

In ZnS crystal lattice, S²⁻ ions form two different close-packed arrays in which Zn²⁺ occupies tetrahedral holes. Two structures adopted by ZnS will be :

1. (a) Zinc Blende (ccp), Wurtzrite (hcp)
2. (b) Zinc Blende (ccp), Wurtzrite (bcc)
3. (c) Zinc Blende (bcc), Wurtzrite (hcp)
4. (d) Zinc Blende (ccp), Wurtzrite (fcc)

The cations A⁺ will form the most ionic halide and A³⁺ the most covalent halide with :

1. (a) I⁻ and F⁻ respectively
2. (b) F⁻ and I⁻ respectively
3. (c) F⁻ and F⁻ respectively
4. (d) I⁻ and I⁻ respectively

Doping NiO with Li₂O in presence of air/O₂ increases the electrical conductivity due to :

1. (a) Formation of F centres in the NiO lattice
2. (b) Formation of a Schottky defect in the NiO lattice
3. (c) Formation of excess holes in the NiO lattice
4. (d) Formation of a Frenkel defect in the NiO lattice

Which one of the following statements regarding ligand field theory is correct ?

1. (a) It considers which atomic orbitals on the metal are used for bonding and predicts the shape and stability of the complex. However, it fails to explain electronic spectra and variation of magnetic properties with temperature.
2. (b) It considers that bonding in coordination compounds is purely electrostatic in nature arising due to ion-ion or ion-dipole attractions which remarkably explains the electronic spectra and magnetism in transition metal complexes.
3. (c) It provides some allowance for the possibility of some covalent interactions between the orbitals on the metal and ligand in form of σ overlap of orbitals, π overlap of orbitals or dπ – pπ bonding (back bonding) due to π overlap of full d orbitals on the metal and with empty p orbitals on the ligands.
4. (d) It provides full allowance of both covalent and ionic contributions and much of the qualitative descriptions require symmetry and group theory approaches.

The hybridization of boron and oxygen atoms in boric acid (H₃BO₃) are respectively :

1. (a) sp³ and sp²
2. (b) sp³ and sp³
3. (c) sp² and sp²
4. (d) sp² and sp³

How many resonating structures are possible for CO₃²⁻ ?

1. (a) 2
2. (b) 3
3. (c) 4
4. (d) 5

Which one of the following statements is not correct with respect to geometry and magnetism of the given complexes ?

1. (a) [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ is square planar and diamagnetic.
2. (b) [Ni(Cl)₄]²⁻ is tetrahedral and paramagnetic.
3. (c) [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻ is octahedral and diamagnetic.
4. (d) Ni(CO)₄ is tetrahedral and paramagnetic.

Consider the following 3-step reaction :
[Ni(H₂O)₆]²⁺ + en ⟶ [Ni(en)(H₂O)₄]²⁺ + 2H₂O
[Ni(en)(H₂O)₄]²⁺ + en ⟶ [Ni(en)₂(H₂O)₂]²⁺ + 2H₂O
[Ni(en)₂(H₂O)₆]²⁺ + en ⟶ [Ni(en)₃]²⁺ + 2H₂O

Which one of the following statements is correct for the overall balanced reaction of the above 3-step reaction ?

1. (a) Number of molecules on product side will be greater than the number of molecules on the substrate side indicating increase in entropy with more chelation.
2. (b) Number of molecules on product side will be less than the number of molecules on the substrate side indicating decrease in enthalpy with more chelation.
3. (c) Number of molecules on product side equals the number of molecules on the substrate side indicating no change in enthalpy and chelation.
4. (d) Number of molecules on product side will be greater than the number of molecules on the substrate side indicating increase in enthalpy with less chelation.

The IUPAC name of [Pt(Py)₄][PtCl₄] is :

1. (a) Tetrapyridineplatinum(I) tetrachloroplatinate(III)
2. (b) Tetrapyridineplatinum(III) tetrachloroplatinate(III)
3. (c) Tetrachloroplatinum(II) tetrapyridineplatinate(II)
4. (d) Tetrapyridineplatinum(II) tetrachloroplatinate(II)

Consider the following structures :

1. [Co] with Cl, Cl, NH₃, NH₃, NH₃, NH₃; the two Cl on adjacent vertices (structure 1)
2. [Co] with Cl, Cl, NH₃, NH₃, NH₃, NH₃; the two Cl on opposite vertices (structure 2)
3. [Ru] with Cl, Cl, Cl, H₂O, H₂O, H₂O; the three Cl on one face, each opposite an H₂O (structure 3)
4. [Ru] with Cl, Cl, Cl, H₂O, H₂O, H₂O; two Cl opposite each other, all three Cl in one plane (structure 4)

Which one of the following statements is correct for the structures given above ?

1. (a) 1 and 2 are cis and trans tetraamminedichlorocobalt(III) and 3 and 4 are cis and trans triaquatrichlororuthenium(III) isomeric pairs.
2. (b) 1 and 2 are cis and trans tetraamminedichlorocobalt(III) and 3 and 4 are fac and mer triaquatrichlororuthenium(III) isomeric pairs.
3. (c) 1 and 2 are fac and mer tetraamminedichlorocobalt(III) and 3 and 4 are cis and trans triaquatrichlororuthenium(III) isomeric pairs.
4. (d) 1 and 2 are fac and mer tetraamminedichlorocobalt(III) and 3 and 4 are fac and mer triaquatrichlororuthenium(III) isomeric pairs.

Which one of the following statements is true for geometrical and optical isomers for a [Ma₂b₂c₂] complex, where a, b and c are monodentate ligands ?

1. (a) Six geometrical isomers and all are optically active.
2. (b) Five geometrical isomers among which, one is optically active.
3. (c) Four geometrical isomers among which, two are optically active.
4. (d) Three geometrical isomers and all are optically active.

Which one of the following will not make an acidic buffer solution ?

1. (a) 100 mL 0.1 N CH₃COOH (aq) + 25 mL 0.4 N NaOH (aq)
2. (b) 100 mL 0.1 N CH₃COOH (aq) + 25 mL 0.3 N NaOH (aq)
3. (c) 100 mL 0.1 N CH₃COOH (aq) + 25 mL 0.2 N NaOH (aq)
4. (d) 100 mL 0.1 N CH₃COOH (aq) + 25 mL 0.1 N NaOH (aq)

In trialkyl amines, the ‘p-character’ of lone-pair of electrons on the N-atom :

1. (a) Increases with bulkier alkyl group resulting in superior donation of lone-pair towards an acid
2. (b) Decreases with bulkier alkyl group resulting in superior donation of lone-pair towards an acid
3. (c) Increases with bulkier alkyl group resulting in poor donation of lone-pair towards an acid
4. (d) Decreases with bulkier alkyl group resulting in poor donation of lone-pair towards an acid

Which one of the following statements regarding Ostwald’s Law of Dilution is not correct ?

1. (a) It is only applicable to weak electrolytes at equilibrium where the dissociation constant K, can be related to degree of ionization (α) and concentration c (in m/L) as K = α² c (1 – α).
2. (b) It is only valid for dilute solutions, where the concentration of the electrolyte is very low.
3. (c) It is applicable to strong as well as weak electrolytes at extreme dilution, if temperature of the solution remains constant during the dilution process.
4. (d) The electrolyte solution must behave ideally, which means that the interactions between the solvent and solute particles should be negligible.

What happens to the ionic product (K_w = 1.0 × 10⁻¹⁴) of water (1 L) at 25°C when it is added with 1 mL of 0.1 N HCl followed by 1 mL of 0.1 N NaOH ?

1. (a) Ionic product remains constant without any significant change
2. (b) Ionic product first increases with addition of HCl due to increase in H⁺ and then decreases on addition of NaOH due to addition of same amount of OH⁻ to its original value
3. (c) Ionic product increases on addition of HCl [H⁺] and further increases due to addition of NaOH [OH⁻] as both factors are involved in the ionic product as K_w = [H⁺] [OH⁻]
4. (d) Ionic product of water decreases constantly as the ionization of water will decrease constantly on addition of any external electrolyte irrespective of being an acid or a base

Which one of the following concentrations of H⁺ ions indicate an acidic pH of water at 100°C ? (where K_w at 100°C is 5.5 × 10⁻¹³)

1. (a) [H⁺] = 7.3 × 10⁻⁷
2. (b) [H⁺] = 7.4 × 10⁻⁷
3. (c) [H⁺] = 7.5 × 10⁻⁷
4. (d) [H⁺] = 7.0 × 10⁻⁷

What will be the pH of the solution produced by adding 20 mL of 1 M HCl to 1 L of a solution containing 0.1 M acetic acid and 0.1 M sodium acetate (K_a = 1.75 × 10⁻⁵ mol L⁻¹) ? (where, log 1.75 = 0.24; log 2/3 = – 0.176)

1. (a) 4.58
2. (b) 4.93
3. (c) 4.76
4. (d) 5.06

A basic buffer solution is formed by mixing aqueous solutions of :

1. (a) A weak base and its salt
2. (b) A strong base and its salt
3. (c) A weak acid and its salt
4. (d) A strong acid and a strong base

In quantitative volumetric analysis for the iodometric determination of copper, what will be the required amount of CuSO₄.5H₂O for preparing 100 mL of N/40 standard solution ?
Reactions involved are :
2Cu²⁺ + 4I⁻ ⟶ 2CuI + I₂
I₂ + 2S₂O₃²⁻ ⟶ S₄O₆²⁻ + 2I⁻
(Molecular weight of CuSO₄.5H₂O is 159.60 g/mol.)

1. (a) 0.19 g
2. (b) 0.29 g
3. (c) 0.39 g
4. (d) 0.49 g

Consider the following characteristics for a primary standard substance :

1. The substance has high formula weight.
2. The substance is 100% pure with very less impurity of only 0.01 to 0.02%.
3. The substance is stable indefinitely at room temperatures.
4. The substance is involved in a reaction for which equilibrium is far right to obtain a very sharp end point.

The above statements are correct for which one of the following pair of substances ?

1. (a) Na₂CO₃ and NaOH
2. (b) C₂H₂O₄ and KMnO₄
3. (c) C₂H₂O₄ and K₂Cr₂O₇
4. (d) KHC₈H₄O₄ and H₂SO₄

In order to determine the amount of Ca²⁺ through complexometric titration with EDTA using Eriochrome black T, which one of the following may be adapted to obtain a sharp end point ?

1. (a) A sufficiently large amount of free Mg²⁺ should be added to Ca²⁺ solution
2. (b) A small measured amount of free Mg²⁺ should be added to Ca²⁺ solution
3. (c) Addition of Mg²⁺ is not at all required as it will hinder with the formation of Ca-EDTA complex by making Mg-EDTA complex
4. (d) Both (a) and (b) are correct as Mg²⁺ is required to initiate the complexation reaction failing which EDTA remains unreacted

Consider an acid-base indicator (HIn) as a weak acid which exhibits red colour in non-ionized form and blue colour in ionized form :
HIn ⇌ H⁺ + In⁻
(red) (blue)
What is the general transition range in terms of pH units between the colours of an indicator according to the equation pH = pK_In + log [In⁻]/[HIn], provided that your eyes discern one colour only when it is 10 times as intense as the other ?

1. (a) 1
2. (b) 2
3. (c) 3
4. (d) 4

Consider the following statements regarding gas molecules :
Statement 1 : Heavier gas molecules move more slowly than light gas molecules.
Statement 2 : The average kinetic energy of gas molecules is independent of the mass.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of above statements ?

1. (a) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
2. (b) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
3. (c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
4. (d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

The volume occupied by 8.8 g of CO₂ at 32°C and 1 bar pressure is : (where R = 0.083 bar dm³ K⁻¹ mol⁻¹; atomic weight of C = 12, O = 16)

1. (a) 8.02 dm³
2. (b) 5.06 dm³
3. (c) 6.15 dm³
4. (d) 10.2 dm³

Boyle’s law is applicable to :

1. (a) Isobaric processes
2. (b) Isochoric processes
3. (c) Isothermal processes
4. (d) Isotonic processes

Which one of the following is not a fundamental assumption about the structure of gases in the kinetic theory of gases model ?

1. (a) A gas is composed of a very large number of minute particles (atoms/molecules)
2. (b) In the absence of a force field, these particles move in a straight line
3. (c) These particles interact (collide) with one another only infrequently
4. (d) In any collision, the total kinetic energy of the two molecules may change after the collision

Consider the following statements regarding the distribution of speeds of molecules :

1. The zero value of the first derivative of \(\left(\frac{1}{N}\right)\left(\frac{dN_u}{du}\right)\) w.r.t. speed corresponds to the most probable speed u_mp.
2. At the same temperature, the oxygen molecule has a narrower distribution of speeds than the carbon dioxide molecule.
3. The area under the speed distribution curve of a particular gas at two different temperatures is the same.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?

1. (a) 1 and 2
2. (b) 2 and 3
3. (c) 1 and 3
4. (d) 2 only

At what temperature will oxygen gas have the same root mean square speed as helium gas at 25°C ?

1. (a) 100°C
2. (b) 200°C
3. (c) 1056°C
4. (d) 2111°C

For any given molecule, the ratio of the average speed ( ū ), root mean square speed (u_rms) and most probable speed (u_mp) is respectively :

1. (a) 1.60 : 1.73 : 1.41
2. (b) 1.60 : 1.41 : 1.73
3. (c) 1.41 : 1.73 : 1.60
4. (d) 1.73 : 1.60 : 1.41

According to Gay-Lussac’s law, which one of the following relations for the frequency (Z₁₁) of binary collisions of gas molecules at constant volume is correct ?

1. (a) Z₁₁ ∝ T^{1/2} and Z₁₁ ∝ p^{1/2}
2. (b) Z₁₁ ∝ T and Z₁₁ ∝ p^{1/2}
3. (c) Z₁₁ ∝ T² and Z₁₁ ∝ p
4. (d) Z₁₁ ∝ T² and Z₁₁ ∝ p²

Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

1. (a) In a gas mixture, each gas contributes to the total pressure.
2. (b) These are large intermolecular forces in an ideal gas.
3. (c) The volume of the gas is essentially the volume of the container.
4. (d) The pressure of the gas is due to collisions with the walls of the container.

A balloon containing a piece of dry ice (solid CO₂) expands when the dry ice sublimes. Which one of the following is true about the system ?

1. (a) Work is done by the system
2. (b) Work is done on the system
3. (c) No work is done
4. (d) Work appears only after the change in state

A gas in a piston chamber kept in a constant temperature bath at 27°C expands from 25 mL to 250 mL very slowly. If there are 0.001 moles of an ideal gas in the chamber, the work done during the expansion is : (where R = 8.31 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹; ln 10 = 2.3)

1. (a) – 5.74 J
2. (b) – 2.49 J
3. (c) 2.49 J
4. (d) 5.74 J

Consider the following statements for an ideal gas undergoing reversible process :

1. The quantity of the work w in a reversible process in a closed system can be found if we know the initial state and final state of the system.
2. The infinitesimal p – V work in a closed system always equals – p dV.
3. \(\int_1^2 p\,dV = \int_1^2 nR\,dT\) for every reversible process in an ideal gas.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?

1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 2 and 3
4. (d) 1 and 3

dw and dq are not exact differentials because w and q are :

1. (a) State functions
2. (b) Path functions
3. (c) Intensive properties
4. (d) Extensive properties

For a given process of an ideal gas, dw = 0 and dq < 0. Then, for this gas :

1. (a) The temperature will decrease
2. (b) The volume will increase
3. (c) The pressure will remain constant
4. (d) The temperature will increase

A cylinder fitted with a frictionless piston containing 2.0 mol of He gas at 1 bar is kept in a large constant-temperature bath at 100 K. The pressure is reversibly increased to 2.0 bar. The w, q and ΔU for this process are respectively : (Given R = 8.3 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹, ln 2 = 0.69)

1. (a) 1145 J, – 1145 J, 0 J
2. (b) – 1145 J, 1145 J, 0 J
3. (c) 498 J, – 498 J, 1 J
4. (d) – 498 J, 498 J, 1 J

The inversion temperature of a gas is : (where a and b are van der Waals constants; R = universal gas constant)

1. (a) \(\frac{2a}{Rb}\)
2. (b) \(\frac{2b}{Ra}\)
3. (c) \(\frac{Rb}{2a}\)
4. (d) \(\frac{Ra}{2b}\)

Which one of the following state functions must remain constant in the Joule-Thomson experiment ?

1. (a) Entropy
2. (b) Gibbs free energy
3. (c) Internal energy
4. (d) Enthalpy

The standard enthalpy of formation of sodium ions in aqueous medium is : (where ΔH°_f [NaOH(aq)] = – 471 kJ mol⁻¹; ΔH°_f [OH⁻(aq)] = – 229 kJ mol⁻¹)

1. (a) 242 kJ mol⁻¹
2. (b) 700 kJ mol⁻¹
3. (c) – 242 kJ mol⁻¹
4. (d) – 700 kJ mol⁻¹

Which one of the following thermodynamic relations is correct ?

1. (a) \(\left(\frac{\partial S}{\partial T}\right)_p = \frac{1}{T}\left(\frac{\partial H}{\partial T}\right)_p\)
2. (b) \(\left(\frac{\partial S}{\partial p}\right)_T = \frac{1}{T}\left[\left(\frac{\partial H}{\partial p}\right)_T + V\right]\)
3. (c) \(\left(\frac{\partial S}{\partial V}\right)_T = \frac{1}{T}\left[p - \left(\frac{\partial U}{\partial T}\right)_V\right]\)
4. (d) \(\left(\frac{\partial S}{\partial T}\right)_V = -\frac{1}{T}\left(\frac{\partial U}{\partial T}\right)_V\)

For the freezing of 2.0 g of liquid water at 0°C and 1 atm, the change in entropy ΔS is about : (where, enthalpy of fusion of water = 6.0 kJ mol⁻¹)

1. (a) + 0.8 JK⁻¹
2. (b) + 1.4 JK⁻¹
3. (c) – 2.4 JK⁻¹
4. (d) – 3.6 JK⁻¹

When 100 g of water is reversibly heated from 27°C to 127°C at 1 bar, the change in entropy (ΔS) for the process is about : (Given : the specific heat capacity C_p of water is nearly constant at 4.2 J g⁻¹ °C⁻¹ in the temperature range 27°C to 127°C at 1 bar; ln 4 = 1.39; ln 3 = 1.10)

1. (a) 29.4 JK⁻¹
2. (b) 122 JK⁻¹
3. (c) 7.0 JK⁻¹
4. (d) 96.6 JK⁻¹

Consider the following statements regarding entropy in a closed system :

1. ΔS can never be negative.
2. For a reversible process, ΔS_univ must be zero.
3. For an adiabatic process, ΔS cannot be negative.
4. Equilibrium is reached when S achieves its maximum.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?

1. (a) 1 and 2
2. (b) 2 and 3
3. (c) 3 and 4
4. (d) 3 only

Which of the following thermodynamic relations are correct ?

1. \(\left(\frac{\partial U}{\partial S}\right)_V = \left(\frac{\partial H}{\partial S}\right)_p\)
2. \(\left(\frac{\partial U}{\partial V}\right)_S = \left(\frac{\partial A}{\partial V}\right)_T\)
3. \(\left(\frac{\partial H}{\partial p}\right)_S = \left(\frac{\partial G}{\partial p}\right)_T\)
4. \(\left(\frac{\partial A}{\partial T}\right)_V = \left(\frac{\partial U}{\partial S}\right)_T\)

Select the answer using the code given below :

1. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. (b) 3 and 4 only
3. (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Consider the following reaction :
Glucose – 6 – Phosphate + Creatine → Glucose + Creatine – P (Creatine phosphate)
What is the value of ΔG° for the reaction given above ?
[Given : The ΔG° values for the hydrolysis of Creatine – P and Glucose – 6 – Phosphate are :
Creatine – P + H₂O → Creatine + P, ΔG° = – 30.0 kJ mol⁻¹
Glucose – 6 – Phosphate + H₂O → Glucose + P, ΔG° = – 11.8 kJ mol⁻¹ ]

1. (a) –10.2 kJ mol⁻¹
2. (b) 12.2 kJ mol⁻¹
3. (c) 18.2 kJ mol⁻¹
4. (d) 24.8 kJ mol⁻¹

Consider the following conditions :

1. ΔH = – ve ΔS = + ve
2. ΔH = + ve ΔS = – ve
3. ΔH = – ve ΔS = – ve
4. ΔH = + ve ΔS = + ve

Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above conditions ?

1. (a) Condition (1) will always lead to a spontaneous change and condition (2) will never lead to a spontaneous change.
2. (b) Condition (1) will never lead to a spontaneous change and condition (2) will always lead to a spontaneous change.
3. (c) Condition (1) will always lead to a spontaneous change and condition (3) will never lead to a spontaneous change.
4. (d) Condition (3) will always lead to a spontaneous change and condition (4) will never lead to a spontaneous change.

Which one of the following is not a colligative property ?

1. (a) Depression of freezing point
2. (b) Relative lowering of vapour pressure
3. (c) Molar refractivity
4. (d) Elevation of boiling point

The osmotic pressure of blood at 37°C is 7.5 bar. The amount of glucose to be used per dm³ for an intravenous injection to have the same osmotic pressure as blood is approximately : (where R = 0.083 dm³ bar K⁻¹ mol⁻¹)

1. (a) 52.5 g
2. (b) 5.25 g
3. (c) 60.0 g
4. (d) 180.0 g

Consider the following statements :
Statement 1 : Meats are preserved in salt.
Statement 2 : The cells of the bacteria lose water by osmosis to the hypertonic solution and eventually die.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of above statements ?

1. (a) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
2. (b) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
3. (c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
4. (d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

Which one of the following expressions represents the ebullioscopic constant of a solvent ? (where R = Gas constant; T_b = boiling point; ΔH_vap = molar heat of vaporization of the solvent; M₁ = molar mass of the solvent)

1. (a) \(\frac{R M_1 \Delta H_{vap}}{T_b}\)
2. (b) \(\frac{R T_b^2 M_1}{\Delta H_{vap}}\)
3. (c) \(\frac{R T_b M_1}{\Delta H_{vap}}\)
4. (d) \(\frac{R T_b \Delta H_{vap}}{M_1}\)

The value of Henry’s Law constant of acetone in chloroform at 25°C is 20 kPa. When the mole fraction of acetone in the solution is 0.30, the vapour pressure of acetone will be :

1. (a) 6.0 kPa
2. (b) 0.6 kPa
3. (c) 0.2 kPa
4. (d) 0.15 kPa

The ratio of the cell constant and resistance is :

1. (a) Electromotive force
2. (b) Specific conductance
3. (c) Equivalent conductance
4. (d) Standard potential

A conductivity cell was calibrated using 0.01 M KCl (k = 1.4 × 10⁻³ S cm⁻¹) in the cell, and the measured resistance was 700 Ω. When the cell was filled with 0.01 M AgNO₃ solution, the cell had a resistance of 800 Ω. The molar conductivity of AgNO₃ solution is :

1. (a) 0.1225 S cm² mol⁻¹
2. (b) 122.5 S cm² mol⁻¹
3. (c) 0.8163 S cm² mol⁻¹
4. (d) 816.3 S cm² mol⁻¹

The molar conductivities at infinite dilution Λ°m for Ba(OH)₂, BaCl₂ and NH₄Cl are 460 S cm² mol⁻¹, 240 S cm² mol⁻¹ and 2130 S cm² mol⁻¹ respectively. The Λ°m for NH₄OH will be :

1. (a) 2240 S cm² mol⁻¹
2. (b) 2470 S cm² mol⁻¹
3. (c) 2600 S cm² mol⁻¹
4. (d) 2340 S cm² mol⁻¹

The conductivity of H⁺ ion in aqueous medium is abnormally high due to :

1. (a) Hydration
2. (b) Proton jump
3. (c) Low charge density
4. (d) Large ionic radius

The equivalent conductance of a strong electrolytic solution :

1. (a) Decreases with dilution
2. (b) Increases with dilution
3. (c) Does not vary with dilution
4. (d) May increase or decrease with dilution depending on the nature of the strong electrolyte

Consider the following graph showing variation of molar conductance with concentration of strong and weak electrolytes :

Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to the above graph ?

1. (a) Both Plot 1 and Plot 2 can be explained using Debye-Hückel Theory.
2. (b) Both Plot 1 and Plot 2 can be explained using Arrhenius theory of electrolytic dissociation.
3. (c) Plot 1 and Plot 2 can be explained using Debye-Hückel Theory and Arrhenius theory of electrolytic dissociation respectively.
4. (d) Plot 1 and Plot 2 can be explained using Arrhenius theory of electrolytic dissociation and Debye-Hückel Theory respectively.

The term BΛ^∞ √c in the Onsager equation Λ = Λ^∞ – (A + BΛ^∞) √c represents the :

1. (a) Decrease in molar conductivity due to electrophoretic effect
2. (b) Decrease in molar conductivity due to asymmetry effect
3. (c) Increase in molar conductivity due to electrophoretic effect
4. (d) Increase in molar conductivity due to asymmetry effect

Walden’s rule holds good for :

1. (a) Large ions only
2. (b) Small ions only
3. (c) Any ion at normal temperature
4. (d) All ions except H⁺

The molar conductivity of 0.02 M formic acid is 40 S cm² mol⁻¹. The degree of dissociation and dissociation constant are respectively : [where, λ^∞ (H⁺) = 350 S cm² mol⁻¹ and λ^∞ (HCOO⁻) = 50 S cm² mol⁻¹]

1. (a) 0.2 and 2.2 × 10⁻⁴
2. (b) 0.1 and 2.2 × 10⁻⁶
3. (c) 0.2 and 2.2 × 10⁻³
4. (d) 0.1 and 2.2 × 10⁻⁴

In the given plot of conductometric titration, the volumes corresponding to points (1) and (2) indicate respectively, the :

1. (a) Neutralization of strong acid and weak acid
2. (b) Neutralization of weak acid and strong acid
3. (c) Hydrolysis of salt formed and neutralization of weak acid
4. (d) Hydrolysis of salt formed and neutralization of strong acid

Which one of the following represents the correct increasing order of reactivity among indicated compounds towards electrophilic reagents ?

1. (a) CH₂ = CHNO₂ < CH₂ = CHN⁺(CH₃)₃ < CH₂ = CH₂ < CH₂ = CHCH₃ < CH₂ = CHBr < CH₂ = CHOCH₃
2. (b) CH₂ = CHN⁺(CH₃)₃ < CH₂ = CHNO₂ < CH₂ = CH₂ < CH₂ = CHBr < CH₂ = CHCH₃ < CH₂ = CHOCH₃
3. (c) CH₂ = CHNO₂ < CH₂ = CHN⁺(CH₃)₃ < CH₂ = CHBr < CH₂ = CH₂ < CH₂ = CHCH₃ < CH₂ = CHOCH₃
4. (d) CH₂ = CHN⁺(CH₃)₃ < CH₂ = CHNO₂ < CH₂ = CHBr < CH₂ = CH₂ < CH₂ = CHOCH₃ < CH₂ = CHCH₃

Entacapone is one of the constituents of drug used for Parkinson’s disease. The structure of entacapone is shown below. Match the type of bond from Column-I with the respective bond label from Column-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the columns :

Code :

1. (a) A-5, B-2, C-6, D-7
2. (b) A-1, B-5, C-7, D-4
3. (c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
4. (d) A-5, B-2, C-3, D-6

Consider the following statements :

1. 2-Chloroprop-1-ene is more susceptible to attack by electrophiles than 3-chloroprop-1-ene.
2. Ethyl but-3-enoate is more susceptible to electrophilic attack than ethyl(E)-but-2-enoate.
3. Bicyclo[2.2.1]hept-2-ene is more stable than bicyclo[2.2.1]hept-1-ene.
4. 2,3-Dimethyl-2-hexene has lesser heat of hydrogenation than 4,5-dimethyl-2-hexene.

How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct ?

1. (a) One
2. (b) Two
3. (c) Three
4. (d) Four

The relative increasing order of stability for the following carbocations is :

1. I. Triphenylmethyl (trityl) cation
2. II. Tricyclopropyl-substituted cyclopropyl cation (ring drawn without a double bond)
3. III. Trimethylcyclopropenium cation
4. IV. Tricyclopropylcyclopropenium cation
5. V. Triphenylcyclopropenium cation

1. (a) II < I < V < III < IV
2. (b) I < II < V < III < IV
3. (c) II < I < IV < III < V
4. (d) I < II < III < IV < V

Rank the indicated C – H bonds in the following compound in order of increasing ease of H-abstraction in a radical halogenation reaction and select the correct answer accordingly :

1. (a) 4 < 3 < 2 < 1
2. (b) 2 < 1 < 3 < 4
3. (c) 3 < 4 < 1 < 2
4. (d) 4 < 3 < 1 < 2

Match the compound from Column-I with the possible number of stereoisomers from Column-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the columns :

Code :

1. (a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
2. (b) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
3. (c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
4. (d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

The Fischer projection formula and its corresponding zig-zag projection for the erythro configuration of the following compound are respectively :

1. (a) Fischer: HO and CH₃HN both on the left (H's on the right), Ar on top, CH₃ at bottom; zig-zag: OH wedged at C1, NHCH₃ hashed at C2 with CH₃ continuing the chain
2. (b) Fischer: HO and CH₃HN both on the left (H's on the right); zig-zag: OH wedged at C1, NHCH₃ in the chain at C2 with CH₃ hashed
3. (c) Fischer: H–C–OH (OH right) over CH₃HN–C–H (NHCH₃ left); zig-zag: OH wedged at C1, NHCH₃ hashed at C2 with CH₃ continuing the chain
4. (d) Fischer: H–C–OH (OH right) over CH₃HN–C–H (NHCH₃ left); zig-zag: OH wedged at C1, NHCH₃ in the chain at C2 with CH₃ hashed

The absolute configurations of chiral centres in the product formed in the following reaction is :
(2R, 3R) — HOCH₂CHOHCHOHCH₂OH + HBr ⟶ HOCH₂CHOHCHOHCH₂Br

1. (a) (2R, 3R)
2. (b) (2S, 3S)
3. (c) (2R, 3S)
4. (d) (2S, 3R)

Consider the following statements regarding the stereochemistry of 1, 4-dichlorocyclohexane :

1. It can exist as enantiomers but no diastereomers are possible.
2. It can exist as enantiomers as well as diastereomers.
3. It can exist as diastereomers but no enantiomers are possible.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?

1. (a) 1 and 2
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 2 and 3
4. (d) 3 only

Consider the following statements regarding haloethanes :
Statement 1 : Chloroethane and iodoethane have similar barrier to rotation around C1 – C2 bond (13.4 – 15.5 kJ/mol) despite the fact that the size of the halogen increases down the group in periodic table.
Statement 2 : The C – Cl bond in chloroethane is much longer than C – I bond in iodoethane.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of above statements ?

1. (a) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
2. (b) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
3. (c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
4. (d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

Consider the following statements regarding Reaction I and Reaction II :
Reaction I : HO⁻ + CH₃OSO₂Ph —SN2→ CH₃OH + PhSO₂O⁻
Reaction II : N(CH₂CH₃)₃ + CH₃CH₂I —SN2→ (CH₃CH₂)₄N⁺I⁻

1. With increase in solvent polarity, the rate of Reaction I is slightly reduced.
2. With increase in solvent polarity, the rate of Reaction I is slightly increased.
3. With increase in solvent polarity, the rate of Reaction II is greatly increased.
4. With increase in solvent polarity, the rate of Reaction II is greatly decreased.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

1. (a) 1 and 3
2. (b) 1 and 4
3. (c) 2 and 3
4. (d) 2 and 4

The major product formed in the following reaction sequence is :
CH₃COCH₂COOEt —(i. NaOEt (2 equiv.); ii. 1,3-dibromopropane)→

1. (a) Ethyl 1-acetylcyclobutane-1-carboxylate
2. (b) Ethyl 2-oxocyclohexane-1-carboxylate
3. (c) Ethyl 3-methyl-5,6-dihydro-4H-pyran-2-carboxylate (ester on the carbon bonded to ring O)
4. (d) Ethyl 2-methyl-5,6-dihydro-4H-pyran-3-carboxylate

The structures of conformer A and B as well as the products C and D in the following free energy profile diagram for the SN2 reaction of tropane with isotopically labelled ¹³CH₃I is :

1. (a) A = N-CH₃ over the propano (six-ring) side, lone pair over the ethano bridge; B = N-CH₃ over the ethano bridge; C = ¹³CH₃ on ethano side, CH₃ on six-ring side; D = CH₃ on ethano side, ¹³CH₃ on six-ring side
2. (b) A = N-CH₃ over the six-ring side; B = N-CH₃ over the ethano bridge; C = CH₃ on ethano side, ¹³CH₃ on six-ring side; D = ¹³CH₃ on ethano side, CH₃ on six-ring side
3. (c) A = N-CH₃ over the ethano bridge, lone pair over the six-ring side; B = N-CH₃ over the six-ring side; C = ¹³CH₃ on ethano side, CH₃ on six-ring side; D = CH₃ on ethano side, ¹³CH₃ on six-ring side
4. (d) A = N-CH₃ over the ethano bridge, lone pair over the six-ring side; B = N-CH₃ over the six-ring side; C = CH₃ on ethano side, ¹³CH₃ on six-ring side; D = ¹³CH₃ on ethano side, CH₃ on six-ring side

The correct increasing order of reactivity towards SN1 substitution of the indicated compounds is :

1. (a) sec-butyl triflate < sec-butyl tosylate < sec-butyl chloride < sec-butyl bromide
2. (b) sec-butyl chloride < sec-butyl bromide < sec-butyl triflate < sec-butyl tosylate
3. (c) sec-butyl chloride < sec-butyl bromide < sec-butyl tosylate < sec-butyl triflate
4. (d) sec-butyl triflate < sec-butyl tosylate < sec-butyl bromide < sec-butyl chloride

The major products [X] and [Y] formed in the following reactions are :

1. (a) [X] = 4-(3-methoxypropyl)phenol and [Y] = allyl ester of the hydroxycyclopentanecarboxylic acid (free OH)
2. (b) [X] = 4-(3-methoxypropyl)phenol and [Y] = allyl ether of the ring OH (free CO₂H)
3. (c) [X] = 3-(4-methoxyphenyl)propan-1-ol and [Y] = allyl ester of the hydroxycyclopentanecarboxylic acid (free OH)
4. (d) [X] = 3-(4-methoxyphenyl)propan-1-ol and [Y] = allyl ether of the ring OH (free CO₂H)

The following table shows the response of chemical analysis of compounds A – D using the indicated reagents :

The compounds A – D on the basis of above data are :

1. (a) A = tert-pentyl alcohol, B = n-pentyl bromide, C = isobutylene, D = isobutane
2. (b) A = isobutane, B = n-pentyl bromide, C = isobutylene, D = tert-pentyl alcohol
3. (c) A = isobutane, B = tert-pentyl alcohol, C = isobutylene, D = n-pentyl bromide
4. (d) A = n-pentyl bromide, B = isobutylene, C = tert-pentyl alcohol, D = isobutane

The isomeric methyl piperidine with molecular formula C₆H₁₃N shown in the Column-I undergo following set of reactions :
C₆H₁₃N —[(i) excess CH₃I/K₂CO₃ (ii) Ag₂O, H₂O (iii) heat]→ —[(i) excess CH₃I/K₂CO₃ (ii) Ag₂O, H₂O (iii) heat]→ Major product
Match the isomeric methyl piperidine compound from Column-I with the major product formed from Column-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the columns :

Code :

1. (a) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-5
2. (b) A-3, B-1, C-5, D-4
3. (c) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-5
4. (d) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

The precursors [X] and [Y] in the following transformations are :

1. (a) [X] = cis-cyclodecene; [Y] = cis-cyclooctene
2. (b) [X] = trans-cyclodecene; [Y] = cis-cyclooctene
3. (c) [X] = trans-cyclodecene; [Y] = trans-cyclooctene
4. (d) [X] = cis-cyclodecene; [Y] = trans-cyclooctene

Consider the following statements regarding compounds I – IV :

1. Compound I reacts with KOCMe₃ in t-butyl alcohol faster than compound II.
2. Compound I reacts with KOCMe₃ in t-butyl alcohol slower than compound II.
3. Compound III undergoes acid-catalyzed hydration faster than compound IV.
4. Compound III undergoes acid-catalyzed hydration slower than compound IV.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

1. (a) 1 and 3
2. (b) 1 and 4
3. (c) 2 and 3
4. (d) 2 and 4

The correct description of the mechanism adopted by the following transformation is :

1. (a) E1 elimination followed by 1,4-conjugate addition of cyanide anion
2. (b) E2 elimination followed by 1,4-conjugate addition of cyanide anion
3. (c) E1cB elimination followed by 1,4-conjugate addition of cyanide anion
4. (d) Straightforward SN2 pathway involving cyanide anion as nucleophile

The natural product X (C₈H₁₇N) on zinc distillation followed by KMnO₄ oxidation forms pyridine-2-carboxylic acid. The reaction of X with HI at 300°C under pressure forms n-octane. The compound X consumes two moles of MeI to form quaternary ammonium salt which undergoes Hofmann degradation to form octa-1,4-diene. The subsequent reduction of octa-1,4-diene forms n-octane. On the basis of these chemical evidences, what is the structure of an unknown compound X ?

1. (a) 1-Methyl-2-ethylpiperidine
2. (b) 3-Ethyl-2-methylpiperidine
3. (c) 3-Propylpiperidine
4. (d) 2-Propylpiperidine

The major product formed in the following reaction is :

1. (a) cis-fused cyclopentene γ-lactone with C=C next to the O-bearing ring-fusion carbon (2-oxabicyclo[3.3.0]oct-7-en-3-one type)
2. (b) cis-fused cyclopentene γ-lactone with C=C next to the CH-bearing ring-fusion carbon
3. (c) bicyclic γ-lactone with C=C at the ring fusion conjugated to C=O (butenolide)
4. (d) bicyclic γ-lactone with C=C at the ring fusion bearing the ring O (enol lactone)

The precursor [X] in the following reaction is :

1. (a) Malonate-tethered tricyclic enone with the side chain on the quaternary ring carbon (one C=C, conjugated to the ring ketone)
2. (b) Linear dienone O=C–CH=CH–C(R)=C< with the CH(CO₂Me)₂(CH₂)₃ chain on the γ-carbon of the dienone
3. (c) Dienone with the CH(CO₂Me)₂(CH₂)₃ chain on the β-carbon (C=C–C=C ring, chain meta to C=O)
4. (d) Dienone with the CH(CO₂Me)₂(CH₂)₃ chain on the α-carbon next to the ring C=O

Consider the following statements :

1. The addition of HBr to 3-methyl-2-pentene is a stereospecific reaction.
2. The addition of HBr to 3-methyl-2-pentene is a stereoselective reaction.
3. The addition of HBr to 3-methyl-2-pentene is a regioselective reaction.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?

1. (a) 1 and 2
2. (b) 1 and 3
3. (c) 2 and 3
4. (d) 3 only

Which one of the following alkenes cannot produce 3-chloro-3-methylhexane as the major product by addition of HCl ?

1. (a) 3-ethylpent-2-ene
2. (b) 3-methylenehexane
3. (c) (E)-3-methylhex-2-ene
4. (d) (Z)-3-methylhex-3-ene

The number of sp and sp² carbons present in the major product (C₁₁H₁₇Cl) formed in the following reaction are :

1. (a) Zero and two respectively
2. (b) Two and zero respectively
3. (c) Two and two respectively
4. (d) Zero and four respectively

The major product formed in the following reaction sequence is :

1. (a) trans-Decalin alcohol with OH β (wedge) at the former alkene carbon, OSO₂Me retained
2. (b) trans-Decalin alcohol with OH α (hash) at the former alkene carbon, OSO₂Me retained
3. (c) (E,E)-1,6-cyclodecadiene with one Me on a ring alkene carbon and a gem-dimethyl group
4. (d) (E,Z)-1,6-cyclodecadiene with one Me on a ring alkene carbon and a gem-dimethyl group

The number of potential tertiary carbocations as reactive intermediates likely to be formed in the mechanism of the following reaction are :

1. (a) Three
2. (b) Four
3. (c) Five
4. (d) Six

The reactive intermediates likely to form in the following reaction is :
3,5,5-trimethylcyclohex-2-en-1-one —[NaNH₂ (3 equiv), THF, bromobenzene]→

1. (a) I, II, III and IV
2. (b) IV, V, VI and VII
3. (c) II, IV, V and VII
4. (d) II, III, V and VII

Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the reaction mechanism, if we assume the presence of kinetic isotope effect in aromatic electrophilic substitution ?

1. (a) C₆D₆ will react faster than C₆H₆ under identical reaction conditions.
2. (b) The formation of σ-complex is a rate determining step.
3. (c) The o/p-ratio of the products formed from anisole will be less than that of 4-deuterioanisole.
4. (d) The D/H ratio will be higher in the reactant than the major product formed when 1,3,5-trideuteriobenzene undergoes mono-electrophilic substitution reaction.

The major product formed in the following reaction is :

1. (a) 1,1,2-Trimethylindane bearing a 2-hydroxyethyl group at C4
2. (b) 2-tert-Butyl-1,2,3,4-tetrahydronaphthalene
3. (c) Seven-membered cyclic ether (tetrahydro-3-benzoxepine) with a tert-butyl group next to O
4. (d) Eight-membered cyclic ether (benzoxocine) with gem-dimethyl next to O and a methyl on the adjacent carbon

The reactive intermediate and the major product formed in the following reaction is :
Lithium tetramethylpiperidide, LiTMP, is a strong non-nucleophilic base.

1. (a) [X] = 3,4-pyridyne; [Y] = 9,10-epoxy-bridged 2-azaanthracene adduct (N not adjacent to ring fusion), bis-SiMe₃
2. (b) [X] = 3,4-pyridyne; [Y] = 9,10-epoxy-bridged 1-azaanthracene adduct (N adjacent to ring fusion), bis-SiMe₃
3. (c) [X] = 2,3-pyridyne; [Y] = 9,10-epoxy-bridged 2-azaanthracene adduct (N not adjacent to ring fusion), bis-SiMe₃
4. (d) [X] = 2,3-pyridyne; [Y] = 9,10-epoxy-bridged 1-azaanthracene adduct (N adjacent to ring fusion), bis-SiMe₃

The major product formed in the following reaction is :

1. (a) 2-[Cyano(4-methylphenyl)methyl]-4-methoxybenzoic acid
2. (b) 3-[Cyano(4-methylphenyl)methyl]-4-methoxybenzoic acid
3. (c) 3-Cyano-4-methoxy-2-(4-methylbenzyl)benzoic acid
4. (d) 2-Cyano-4-methoxy-3-(4-methylbenzyl)benzoic acid

The major product [X] formed in the following reaction sequence is :

1. (a) 6-Methyl-2,3,4,9-tetrahydro-1H-carbazole
2. (b) 7-Bromo-6-methyl-2,3,4,9-tetrahydro-1H-carbazole
3. (c) 5-Bromo-6-methyl-2,3,4,9-tetrahydro-1H-carbazole
4. (d) 7-Bromo-5-methyl-2,3,4,9-tetrahydro-1H-carbazole

The major products [X] and [Y] formed in the following reactions are :

1. (a) [X] = dibenzazepinone phenol, OH para to the biaryl bond; [Y] = fully unsaturated tropone fused to N-methylphenanthridinone
2. (b) [X] = dibenzazepinone phenol, OH para to the biaryl bond; [Y] = dihydrotropone (CH₂ in the seven-ring) fused to N-methylphenanthridinone
3. (c) [X] = dibenzazepinone phenol, OH para to the CH₂ (meta to the biaryl bond); [Y] = dihydrotropone (CH₂ in the seven-ring) fused to N-methylphenanthridinone
4. (d) [X] = dibenzazepinone phenol, OH para to the CH₂ (meta to the biaryl bond); [Y] = fully unsaturated tropone fused to N-methylphenanthridinone

The mechanism of the following reaction sequentially involves the :

1. (a) conversion of 3° carbocation to oxocarbenium ion
2. (b) conversion of 2° carbocation to oxocarbenium ion
3. (c) conversion of 3° carbocation to 1° carbocation
4. (d) conversion of 2° carbocation to 1° carbocation

The major product formed in the following reaction is :

1. (a) 2-Phenyl-3,3,4,5,5-pentamethyltetrahydrofuran
2. (b) 2-Phenyl-3,3,4,4,5-pentamethyltetrahydrofuran
3. (c) 2-Phenyl-3,4,4,5,5-pentamethyltetrahydrofuran
4. (d) 2,3,4,4-Tetramethyl-1-phenylpent-2-en-1-ol

The major product formed in the following reaction is :

1. (a) Nortricyclene (tricyclo[2.2.1.0²,⁶]heptane)
2. (b) 5-Methylidenebicyclo[2.2.1]heptan-2-yl tosylate
3. (c) 6-Methylbicyclo[2.2.1]hept-5-en-2-yl tosylate
4. (d) 5-Methylidenebicyclo[2.2.1]hept-2-ene

The major product formed in the following reaction sequence is :

1. (a) cis-Fused γ-lactone: CH₂ and O wedged, I wedged, vinyl hashed
2. (b) cis-Fused γ-lactone: CH₂ and O hashed, I wedged, vinyl hashed
3. (c) δ-Lactone with CH₂I (from the vinyl group), ring alkene retained, trans ring fusion
4. (d) δ-Lactone with CH₂I (from the vinyl group), ring alkene retained, cis ring fusion

Consider the following statements regarding the solvolysis of compounds I and II in acetic acid :
Statement 1 : Compound I undergo solvolysis faster than compound II.
Statement 2 : The greater rate enhancement in compound I than II is due to the effective stabilization of transition state by the isolated double bond than an aryl ring.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of above statements ?

1. (a) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
2. (b) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
3. (c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
4. (d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.